Solved question Paper of IPO Examination held on 29th January 2012 (Question No 1 to 150)

1.    In which  case it was  held by  the supreme court that  preamble is the basic feature of the constitution Answer  :  in re Keshwananda Bharti

2.    In which cases it was held by  the supreme court that an amendment of the constitution  under article 368 was law within  the meaning of article 13 Answer : in re In GolakNath Case

3.    The number of articles in Indian  constitution is Answer :  395

4.    The list of states and union territories is mentioned in which  schedule of the constitution Answer :  First

5.    The establishment and constitution of supreme  Court has been provided in Answer :  Article 124

6.    Which provision of constitution says that civil   and judicial  authorities to act in aid to Supreme court? Answer  Article 144

7.    Which provision  of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record Answer  Article  215

8.    Writ jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts art 226 Answer : Both are equal

9.    Gram Sabha has been created under which article of constitution Answer :  Article 243 A

10.   Right to property under art 300A is  a Answer : Constitutional right

11.   Power of parliament to restrict trade and  commerce has been described in Answer Article 302 <!--[if !supportLineBreakNewLine]--> <!--[endif]-->

12.    Public service commissions for the union and states are created Answer : Article 315

13.   The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank  of civil servants emanates from Answer :   article 311 of constitution

14.    Power of governor  to grant pardon is given in Answer    Art 161

15.   Preventive detention according to Art 22 can be enforced Answer  :

16.   Proclamation of emergency is valid up to  Answer  :  It has to be for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed

17.   Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under Answer   Article 20

18.   In  the Indian Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with  Answer  :  The people

19.   The prime minister is  Answer :          Head of the government

20 The finance commission is appointed by the Answer : President

21.   Which article provides fundamental right of right to education Answer :  Article 21A

22.   In India who  is the legal advisor  to the state government Answer : Advocate  General

23.    If a directive principles of State policy is infringed Answer:  There is no remedy by judicial proceedings

24.     India Sawhney V. Union India is a case dealing with: Answer:  Reservation of OBCs

25.    Article 17 of the Constitution: Answer:  Abolishes untouchability

26.    Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers? Answers:  Preamble

27.    The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the Central Government and State Government is provided in which article? Answers:  Art. 300

28.    The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the: Answers:   President

29.    The eight schedule of the Constitution contains: Answers:  List of languages recognized by the Constitution

30.    National Emergency can be declared by the President: Answers:  On the recommendation of the Parliament

31.    The provisions of Art. 311 does not apply to Answers:  All of these

32.     Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not? Answers:  Speaker of the Lok Sabha

33.    Who is the Ex= officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? Answers:  The Vice-President

34.    An order of court to produce a man before it is called: Answers:  Habeas Corpus

35.     Which article separates judiciary from executive? Answers:  Article 50

36.     All India Services has been created under which article? Answers:  Article 312

37.     Which of the following right is not provided under the Consumer Protection Act? Answers:  Right to punish

38.     The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer State Commission is: Answers:  None of the above

39.     The limitation for filing appeal under the Consumer Protection Act is: Answers:  30 days from the order

40.     Medical Services were brought under the Consumer Protection Act by the Supreme Court in the famous case of: Answers:   Indian medical association v V.P shata

41.     Consumer mentioned u/s 2 of the Act includes Answers:  Both of them

42.     The limitation for filing a Consumer Complaint is Answers:  Two year

43.     The delay in filing Consumer Complaint can be condoned under: Answers:  Section 24 A(2) of the Act

44.     Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as: Answers:  District Forum

45.     The responsibility of the consumer under the Act includes: Answers:   All of the above

46.     Appeal from the Orders of Consumer National Commission lies to: Answers:  Supreme Court

47.     Under which provision District Forum can impose punitive damages? Answers:  Section 14(d) of the Act

48.     A person against whom an order has been passed by the District Forum may go into appeal to the consumer State Commission subject to his depositing: Answers:   Lesser of (A) & (B)

49.     The president of Consumer State Commission is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the Answers:  Chief Justice of the High Court

50.     The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer National Commission is Answers:  Above 1 Crore

51.    The provision of transfer of complaints from one District Forum to another within the state vest with the State commission under Answer : Section 17 A of the Act

52.    The word “information’ under the RTI Act includes: Answer : Both of them

53.     The RTI Act came into effect in the year: Answer : 2005

54.      The provision of the RTI Act giving citizen right to information is Answer : Section 3

55.     The language of an application under RTI Answer : All of the above

56.     The period for filing appeal under the RTI Act may be: Answer : 30 days

57.     An application making request for information Answer : Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information

58.     The general time limit for providing information sought under RTI Act is Answer : 30 days

59.     The type of information exempted under the RTI act are mentioned in: Answer : Section 8

60.     The term of office for the Chief indormatio0n Commissioner and information Commissioner is : Answer : Five year and  superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier

61.     Bar of jurisdiction of court in respect of any order made under the RTI Act is contained in: Answer : Section 23

62.     The umbrella organization under the RTI Act to Co- ordinate and monitor the implementation of the provision of the Act is Answer : National Advisory council*

63.     The object of the RTI Act is: Answer : All the above 64.     RTI Act applies to : Answer : Only A & B

65.     The period for filing second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is Answer : 90 days

66.     The limit of penalty to be imposed by the State information Commission or the Central Information Commission under section 20 of the Act on the Principal information Officer is rupees : Answer : Min- 250/- and Max -25000/-

67.     Number of chapters in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are Answer : 23

68.     How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code: Answer : Five

69.     Chapter V of Indian Penal code deals with: Answer : Abetment

70.     Abettor is a person Answer :  Who instigates the commission of offence*

71.     Preventing service of summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof,  shall be punished with: Answer : Any of A and B*

72.     Under section 99, the right of private defence is Answer :

73.     A public servant absconding to avoid service of  summons or other proceeding, shall be punished with:  Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1 month an fine Rs 500

74.     Obstructing public servant in discharge functions, shall be punished with: Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months, or fine of Rs 500/- or both

75.     Number of chapter in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 Answer : 11

76.     Indian Evidence Act  1872 does not apply on affidavits, and arbitration Answer : Correct statement

77.     Relevancy is Answer : Question of law and can be raised at any time

78.     RTI Act 2005 covers all the states in India except: Answer : Jammu & Kashmir

79.     Which one of the following is not a member of committee for appointment of CIC Answer : Speaker of Lok Sabha

80.     Which of the following is not a writ provided in the constitution of India: Answer : Injunction

81.     Code of Civil Procedure came into force in the year Answer : 1909

82.     “ Measne Profits”  under CPC means: Answer : Benefits enjoyed by the person in wrongful possession of the property

83.     “ Foreign Judgment”  under CPC means Answer : The judgment of foreign court

84.     Decree of a Civil Court means and includes; <!--[if !supportLineBreakNewLine]--> <!--[endif]--> Answer :    Any order of extension of time for filing Court Fees

85.     “Judgment Debtor:” means; Answer :  A person against whom decree has been passed

86.     Pleader means: Answer :  Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in Court

87.     The word “Judge” under CPC means Answer :   Presiding Officer of a Civil Court

88.     The word “ Order” under section 2 of CPC means Answer :  Formal expression of any decision of a Civil court

89.     “ Share in a corporation” shall be deemed to include Answer :   Bond, stock, debenture, debenture stock

90.      Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, CPC does not apply Answer :  Nagaland

91.     A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against Answer :   Accused offender*

92.     Attachment of the property of the person absconding Answer :   Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation u/s 82 of CrPC

93.     A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving Answer :   Not less than 30 day time to the person concerned

94.     Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is Answer :   Within six month of attachment

95.     Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is Answer :    One year from the date of disallowing the claim

96.     If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached: Answer :    Shall be released from attachment

97.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from: Answer :    Section 85 of Cr.PC

98.     If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached: Answer :   Both A and B

99.     A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds, on appearance. Answer :    Within two year of attachment.

100.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that: Answer :   Both A and B

101.     The power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC Answer :   All the above

102.     A proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued Answer :   To secure the attendance of the person concerned before the court

103.     Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed Answer :

104.     Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made Answer :    Through the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated.

105.     A fact forming  of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act: Answer :   Through not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place

106.     Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act

107.     Motive behind an Act is relevant Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

108.     Preparation for an Act is relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

109     Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant: Answer :   Both A&B

110.     Under section 8 of Evidence Act: Answer :  All the above are relevant

111.     When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

112.     Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

113.     A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law Answer :   Under Section 5 of Evidence Act

114.     The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively.  Each delivery is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

115.     The question is, whether  A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant Facts: Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

116.     A is accused of murder of B by beating him.  Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act

117.     A is tired for murder of B by poison.  The fact that before the death of B,  A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

118.     The question is is whether A committed a crime.  The fact that A absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

119.     The question is, whether A was robbed.  The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

120.     A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money.  B denies the making of bond.  The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made,  B required money for particular purpose, is relevant. Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

121.     Wrongful gain means  Answer :    Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled

122.     Wrongful loss means Answer :    Loss b unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled

123.     Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another: Answer :    Under section 24 IPC

124.     Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud: Answer :    Under section 25 of IPC 125.     Section 34 of IPC Answer :

126.     Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes: Answer :   Death of a human being

127.     Illegal signifies Answer :    All the above

128.     Nothing is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention- as defined: Answer :    Under section 52 IPC

129.     Personating a public servant is an offence Answer :   Under Section 170 IPC

130.     The term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means Answer :   Any harm illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation

131.     The word voluntarily has been defined Answer :    In section 39 of IPC

132.     For the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least Answer :    Two persons

133.     Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable: Answer :    Under section 174 of IPC

134.     Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable Answer :   Under section 177 of IPC

135.     Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable Answer :   Under section 186 of IPC

136.     Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable: Answer :    Under section 188 of IPC

137.     Threat of injury to public servant is punishable Answer :   Under section 189 of IPC

138.     Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable Answer :   Under section 491 of IPC

139.     Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided: Answer :    In section 55 of IPC

140.     Under section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed Answer :   Three months.

141.     In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine Answer :   Has to be simple

142.     In IPC the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote. Answer :   Either

143     In IPC the word India means the territory of India excluding Answer :    State of Jammu and Kashmir

144.     The word public servant has been defined in IPC Answer :    In section 21

145.     The word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean Answer :    A law applicable to a particular subject

146.     The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited Answer :    In section 168 of IPC

147.  The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited: Answer :   In section 169 of IPC

148.     Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments: Answer :   Five

149.     A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange.  As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may become lawful holder of it: Answer :    The endorsement is a valuable security

150.     The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided. Answer :    In section 34 of IPC (Solved by AB Kantharaja, Mobile 08969822340, http://abkantharaja.blogspot.in ),sapost.blogspot